Novatian

In his own words on Jeremiah

• Jeremiah 17:7-8

  If Christ is only man, how is he present wherever he is invoked—since it is not people's nature but God's to be able to be present everywhere? If Christ is only man, why is a man called on in prayer as a mediator, when calling on a mortal to grant salvation is considered useless? If Christ is only man, why is hope put in him, when hope in humankind is declared to be accursed? If Christ is only man, why cannot he be denied without ruin to one's soul, when it is declared that an offense against people can be forgiven? If Christ is only man, how does John the Baptist bear witness of him when he says, "He who comes after me was made before me, for he was before me"? If Christ were only man, then, being born after John, he could not be before John, unless he preceded him as God.

  ON THE TRINITY 14:7-11